2026年考研数学一第20题

解答题 · 12分

📝 题目

(本题满分 12 分)
设可导函数 $f(x)$ 严格单调递增且满足 $\displaystyle\int_{-1}^1 f(x) dx=0$,记 $a=\displaystyle\int_0^1 f(x) dx$。 (1)证明 $a\gt 0$; (2)令 $F(x)=a\left(1-x^2\right)+\displaystyle\int_1^x f(t) dt$,证明:存在 $\xi \in(-1,1)$,使得 $F''(\xi)=0$。

💡 答案解析

答案: 见解析


解析:

【解】 $\boldsymbol{A}=\left(\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{3}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{4}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{cccc}1 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & -1 & -1 & 1 \ -1 & 0 & 1 & -1 \ -1 & -2 & -1 & 1\end{array}\right) \rightarrow\left(\begin{array}{cccc}1 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & -1 & -1 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0\end{array}\right)$ , $r(\boldsymbol{A})=2$ 且 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}$ 线性无关.

又 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}{3}=-\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}+\boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{4}=\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}-\boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}$ ,所以 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}$ 是 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{3}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{4}$ 的极大线性无关组。故

$$
\begin{gathered}
\boldsymbol{A}=\left(\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{2},-\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}+\boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}-\boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}\right){1 \times 4}=\left(\boldsymbol{\alpha}{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}{2}\right){1 \times 2}\left(\begin{array}{cccc}
1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \
0 & 1 & 1 & -1
\end{array}\right)_{2 \times 4}, \
\boldsymbol{A}^{10}=\boldsymbol{G H G H} \cdots \boldsymbol{G H}=\boldsymbol{G D} \boldsymbol{D}^{9} \boldsymbol{H},
\end{gathered}
$$

其中 $\boldsymbol{D}=\left(\begin{array}{cccc}1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 1 & -1\end{array}\right){2 \times 4}\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & 1 \ 0 & -1 \ -1 & 0 \ -1 & -2\end{array}\right){4 \times 2}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & -1 \ 0 & 1\end{array}\right)_{2 \times 2}$ .
又 $\boldsymbol{D}^{2}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & -2 \ 0 & 1\end{array}\right), \boldsymbol{D}^{3}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & -3 \ 0 & 1\end{array}\right)$ ,由此可推出 $\boldsymbol{D}^{9}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & -9 \ 0 & 1\end{array}\right)$ .

$$
\boldsymbol{A}^{10}=\boldsymbol{G} \boldsymbol{D}^{9} \boldsymbol{H}=\left(\begin{array}{cccc}
1 & 8 & -9 & 9 \
0 & -1 & -1 & 1 \
-1 & 9 & 10 & -10 \
-1 & 7 & 8 & -8
\end{array}\right)
$$

22.(本题满分 12 分)
假设某种元件的寿命服从指数分布,其均值 $\theta$ 是未知参数.为估计 $\theta$ ,取 $n$ 个这种元件同时做寿命试验,试验到出现 $k(1 \leq k \leq n)$ 个元件失效时停止.
(1)若 $k=1$ ,失效元件的寿命记为 $T$ ,(i)求 $T$ 的概率密度;(ii)确定 $a$ ,使得 $\hat{\theta}=a T$是 $\theta$ 的无偏估计,并求 $D(\hat{\theta})$ ;
(2)已知 $k$ 个失效元件的寿命值分别为 $t_{1}, t_{2}, \cdots, t_{k}$ ,且 $t_{1} \leq t_{2} \leq \cdots \leq t_{k}$ ,似然函数为
$L(\theta)=\displaystyle\frac{1}{\theta^{k}} \mathrm{e}^{-\displaystyle\frac{1}{\theta}\left[\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^{k} t_{i}+(n-k) t_{k}\right]}$ ,求 $\theta$ 的最大似然估计值.
22.【解】(1)(i)设元件的寿命分别为 $X_{1}, X_{2}, \cdots, X_{n}$ ,则每个样本均服从参数 $\lambda=\displaystyle\frac{1}{\theta}$ 的指数分布,即

$$
F(x)=\left{\begin{array}{ll}
1-\mathrm{e}^{-\frac{x}{\theta}}, & x \geq 0, \
0, & x<0,
\end{array} f(x)= \begin{cases}\frac{1}{\theta} \mathrm{e}^{-\frac{x}{\theta}}, & x>0 \
0, & x<0\end{cases}\right.
$$

当 $k=1$ 时,$T=\min \left{X_{1}, X_{2}, \cdots, X_{n}\right}$ ,设 $T$ 的分布函数为 $F_{T}(t)$ ,则

$$
F_{T}(t)=P{T \leq t}=1-P\left{\min \left{X_{1}, \cdots, X_{n}\right}>t\right}=1-\prod_{i=1}^{n} P\left{X_{i}>t\right}= \begin{cases}0, & t<0 \ 1-\mathrm{e}^{-\frac{n}{\theta} t}, & t \geq 0\end{cases}
$$

$T$ 的概率密度为

$$
f_{T}(t)= \begin{cases}\frac{n}{\theta} \mathrm{e}^{-\frac{n}{\theta} t}, & t>0, \ 0, & \text { 其他. }\end{cases}
$$

(ii)由(i)可知,$T \sim E\left(\displaystyle\frac{n}{\theta}\right)$

所以 $E(T)=\displaystyle\frac{\theta}{n}, D(T)=\displaystyle\frac{\theta^{2}}{n^{2}}$ ,故 $E(\hat{\theta})=a \cdot \displaystyle\frac{\theta}{n}$ .

当 $a=n$ 时,$\hat{\theta}=a T$ 为 $\theta$ 的无偏估计量.

$$
D(\hat{\theta})=D(n T)=n^{2} D T=n^{2} \cdot \frac{\theta^{2}}{n^{2}}=\theta^{2}
$$

(2)似然函数为

$$
\begin{gathered}
L(\theta)=\frac{1}{\theta^{k}} \mathrm{e}^{-\frac{1}{\theta}\left[\sum_{i=1}^{k} t_{i}+(n-k) t_{k}\right]}, \
\ln L(\theta)=-k \ln \theta-\frac{1}{\theta}\left[\sum_{i=1}^{k} t_{i}+(n-k) t_{k}\right],
\end{gathered}
$$

令 $\displaystyle\frac{\mathrm{d} \ln L(\theta)}{\mathrm{d} \theta}=-\displaystyle\frac{k}{\theta}+\displaystyle\frac{1}{\theta^{2}}\left[\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^{k} t_{i}+(n-k) t_{k}\right]=0$ ,解得

$$
\theta=\frac{1}{k} \sum_{i=1}^{k} t_{i}+\frac{n-k}{k} t_{k}
$$

即 $\theta$ 的最大似然估计值为

$$
\hat{\theta}=\frac{1}{k} \sum_{i=1}^{k} t_{i}+\frac{n-k}{k} t_{k}
$$

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